Did functionalism come along with the irrefutable facts?

Doing a research paper on emile durkheim and was wandering if his theory of functionalism went along with the irrefutable facts or which came first? Thanks!

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  • OK you need to put Durkheim’s theories into their historical context.

    The attitudes of the Victorian Period, the concept of elitism, rationalism & so many now disproved notions of how society ran.

    I may be wrong, preferring some of the other social theories, because Functionalism always seemed to me to be condoning elitism.

    Suggesting that all parts of society had a function. For example the poor’s function, as consumers, was to support the market for second/third hand items. Supporting acts that are not considered atrocities, like deliberately trying to kill off “weak”, “Native” (etc) languages/cultures by removing the children from their families & raising them to be cheap labour.

    So my answer would be “no”.

    I believe that the notion of “irrefutable facts” is an illusion, it all depends on the personal bias of the researcher.
    .

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